11-20-2012, 12:20 PM
I have come across a strange citation of a papyrus dated to 186 AD in Egypt that announces a “public auction of two-thirds ownership parts in a slave, the other one-third part already being free.” (B.P. Grenfell (ed), Oxyrhynchus papyri, 4:716 cited in William Westermann's The Slave Systems of Greek and Roman Antiquity).
Initially this was quite confusing, as I thought freedom and slavery were mutually exclusive. But then I recalled that slaves were sometimes owned via joint-stock endeavours just like any other asset.
So I’m trying to figure out how a slave could become 1/3 free. One way, I think, is if the owner of 1/3 of a slave died and manumitted him. Another possibility is if the slave bought his freedom in stages, instead of saving up all the money he would need over decades. What do you think? Could there be other ways to achieve partial freedom?
Then my next question deals with what life would have been like for someone 1/3 free. I suppose in the case of a skilled craftsman or professional, life would go on as normal but the person would be entitled to 1/3 of his earnings, while 2/3 would go to his owners. Correct?
But what about a slave that did not have any independent earning power, like a domestic servant or someone owned by the mines? How would that work? Would they be “free” for one day and then have to work for their owner for two days? I really have no idea how partial freedom would work under this scenario.
Initially this was quite confusing, as I thought freedom and slavery were mutually exclusive. But then I recalled that slaves were sometimes owned via joint-stock endeavours just like any other asset.
So I’m trying to figure out how a slave could become 1/3 free. One way, I think, is if the owner of 1/3 of a slave died and manumitted him. Another possibility is if the slave bought his freedom in stages, instead of saving up all the money he would need over decades. What do you think? Could there be other ways to achieve partial freedom?
Then my next question deals with what life would have been like for someone 1/3 free. I suppose in the case of a skilled craftsman or professional, life would go on as normal but the person would be entitled to 1/3 of his earnings, while 2/3 would go to his owners. Correct?
But what about a slave that did not have any independent earning power, like a domestic servant or someone owned by the mines? How would that work? Would they be “free” for one day and then have to work for their owner for two days? I really have no idea how partial freedom would work under this scenario.
David J. Cord
www.davidcord.com
www.davidcord.com