02-29-2008, 08:05 PM
On the question of Language/culture relations:
Ancient writers like Ptolemy, pliny the Elder and Strabo talk about Celtic populations in Iberia, however as the La Tene culture didn´t spread down to Iberia the existence of those Celts was regularly dismissed by modern scholars. However, epigraphic evidence showed that those populations actually spoke a celtic language, and they are now considered Celts.
IMO Ancient writers had their resons to differenciate beween Celts and Germans even those living in a territory mostly inhabitated by Celts, and the more likely reason I see, as was clearly the case for the Iberian penynsula, is their language.
Ancient writers like Ptolemy, pliny the Elder and Strabo talk about Celtic populations in Iberia, however as the La Tene culture didn´t spread down to Iberia the existence of those Celts was regularly dismissed by modern scholars. However, epigraphic evidence showed that those populations actually spoke a celtic language, and they are now considered Celts.
IMO Ancient writers had their resons to differenciate beween Celts and Germans even those living in a territory mostly inhabitated by Celts, and the more likely reason I see, as was clearly the case for the Iberian penynsula, is their language.
AKA Inaki
