Were the Germans physically superior?

[Arminius75]

sorry man Hallstatt are absolutly a NON Celtic cultural manifestation ..Celts were on Central and Eastern Europe on after Illyrians or venetic on late centuries before the romans took the control of these area and the Celts were the "new kids on the block" nor the "original owners"

You say 'absolutely''? I bet you can back that strong statement up with some references.
I only know of a theory that places proto-Illyrians (or proto-Veneti) in the eastern part of the Hallstatt zone, and only the Alpine parts at that. The middle and western parts (from Bavaria to the middle of France) of this cultural zone were to my knowledge never associated with either Illyrians or Veneti. To my knowledge, no linguistic remains of these groups (which are mostly defined by language) do not appear there.

Yep, youre right, i`m wrong when use the term "absolut" but i keep this position based on roman historiogrphic sources as the mention of Servius on reference of the æneid about the liburnian origin of those inhabitants of Vindelicia (those non Helvetii), and of course is not linguisitc, from the linguisitc point of view the Illyrians do not "exist" becasue only suvive a few personal names, but when asociate the archaeological data is another history, the only writings evidences comes from venetic and liburnians goups and from Messapic peoples too and many scholars denied an Illyrian origin, if Hallstatt are not Illyrian or Venetic , perhaps but Celtics are far away and archaeology show their prescence very late there....well youre right again when noted this "non topic" issue, we are talking about germans...but again talking about languages we need to be very careful because "lenguage do not define a culture as a culture do not define a race" Archaeology need al referencial information to contrast every empiric evidence, every science for their own can't explain a complex fenomena ...and language ....mmmm i am a spanish speaker but i'm not spaniard .... :mrgreen: :mrgreen: