08-02-2009, 03:14 PM
Quote:That would have been the senible thing to do--roughly how the Romans ruled conquered peoples--but do we know whether the Anglo-Saxons did so?
we know germanic peoples did not generally slaughter women and children.even steppe peoples only did so to terrify their enemies and discourage resistance.mass slaughter was wasteful.
A different thread pretty well laid to rest the idea that the Germans slaugtered the Britons. Apparently some sort of assimilation occurred, but do we know whether the Briton hieracrhy was retained or replaced by Germanic overlords, as the Normans largely did to the English six hundred years later?
many 'saxon' nobles and even kings had british names.our problem is the sources were either biased or far removed in distance and time or had political/religious agenda.
conquering nations have had to (over the centuries)come to agreement with the conquered for centuries...the romans did,the vikings did,the normans,even hitler and the mighty wehrmacht had to work through puppets or clients in the occupied territories.
mark avons