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Getae and Dacians? Are they the same? Or is this unknowable?
#2
The real issue is "who is giving a name to whom". Authors living in the centuries AD, often used ancient names to describe comparatively new nations. So, Herodotus' name "Getae" could get a second life to describe any nation living in Bulgaria/Rumania.

There is a related problem, which, although it is now irrelevant, may be useful to mention: that people Antiquity use various labels for themselves. A Roman could call himself a Roman, but on festive occasions, he called himself a Quirite. A Hellene was a Hellene, but if he wanted to stress his martial prowess, he could call himself a Dorian; if he wanted to stress his cosmopolitan lookout, a Ionian. A Jew would be called, and called himself, a Judaean when he was talking to a foreigner, but would call himself, and was called, an Israelite in a discussion with a compatriot.

Just like today, ethnic labels were never fixed. You may find by Ton Derks and Nico Roymans, Ethnic Constructs in Antiquity. The Role of Power and Tradition useful.
Jona Lendering
Relevance is the enemy of history
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Messages In This Thread
Re: Getae and Dacians? Are they the same? Or is this unknowable? - by Jona Lendering - 06-04-2009, 06:57 AM
Re: Getae and Dacians? - by Vincula - 11-15-2009, 09:48 PM

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