01-29-2018, 05:05 AM
Aaron wrote:
I'm 100% positive that the battle did happen.
Most people are, but I am 100% positive it did not happen as portrayed by Polybius. I am aware of the views of many outlining their reasons as to why it happened, from Cato would have made mention of the battle being a fabrication, to the whole Roman army being paid off to support the Polybian view, but all these views are irrelevant until a few things can be determined.
Polybius was made a hostage in 167 BC. Polybius mentions the Via Domitia so this must be after 118 BC, and according to Lucian he died at the age of 82.
So when did he start writing his history?
Did he write them in Rome or Greece?
When did Polybius’ work become mainstream?
All the counter debate to the battle of Zama as occurring in Polybius’ narrative must first answer these questions, otherwise there is no defence.
If Polybius wrote his histories after the fall of Carthage in 146 BC, and includes an event in 118 BC, then he has twenty eight years of writing time. As Polybius states he was writing for a Greek audience, then where is the evidence to say he did not write his histories in Greece. Could after the siege of Carthage he was given his freedom and a ship to take him to Greece and home?
I'm 100% positive that the battle did happen.
Most people are, but I am 100% positive it did not happen as portrayed by Polybius. I am aware of the views of many outlining their reasons as to why it happened, from Cato would have made mention of the battle being a fabrication, to the whole Roman army being paid off to support the Polybian view, but all these views are irrelevant until a few things can be determined.
Polybius was made a hostage in 167 BC. Polybius mentions the Via Domitia so this must be after 118 BC, and according to Lucian he died at the age of 82.
So when did he start writing his history?
Did he write them in Rome or Greece?
When did Polybius’ work become mainstream?
All the counter debate to the battle of Zama as occurring in Polybius’ narrative must first answer these questions, otherwise there is no defence.
If Polybius wrote his histories after the fall of Carthage in 146 BC, and includes an event in 118 BC, then he has twenty eight years of writing time. As Polybius states he was writing for a Greek audience, then where is the evidence to say he did not write his histories in Greece. Could after the siege of Carthage he was given his freedom and a ship to take him to Greece and home?
