02-14-2001, 07:44 AM
Salve,<br>
<br>
You raise an interesting point there. The net pay issue is one thing I have wondered about too. During a class for papyrology I read the prices of food attested in Egypt were remarkably lower than in Italy. This then made me think that the higher praetorian pay may have reflected the higher costs of living, but then I realised that there are no praetorian pay records yet available that might show varying or equal deductions for expenses. There is some evidence that cavalry troops had less deducted for their mounts than the market value of a horse, perhaps troops were subsidized in other respects too. Standard deductions seem to have been used for food. The Masada and Geneva pay records show the same amount (when converted) deducted for the soldier's rations, but different amounts for clothing, equipment and shoes.<br>
<br>
Regards,<br>
<br>
Sander van Dorst <p></p><i></i>
<br>
You raise an interesting point there. The net pay issue is one thing I have wondered about too. During a class for papyrology I read the prices of food attested in Egypt were remarkably lower than in Italy. This then made me think that the higher praetorian pay may have reflected the higher costs of living, but then I realised that there are no praetorian pay records yet available that might show varying or equal deductions for expenses. There is some evidence that cavalry troops had less deducted for their mounts than the market value of a horse, perhaps troops were subsidized in other respects too. Standard deductions seem to have been used for food. The Masada and Geneva pay records show the same amount (when converted) deducted for the soldier's rations, but different amounts for clothing, equipment and shoes.<br>
<br>
Regards,<br>
<br>
Sander van Dorst <p></p><i></i>
