Getae and Dacians? Are they the same? Or is this unknowable?

[recondicom]

Whether Georgians are considered Semitic in accordance with the language varies from the many points of historical views. Marcus Cornelius Fronto has a reference as early as the II century of the Iberians in the presence of Marcus Aurelius. I could add other influences as well. I will go back to the Odrysian kingdom and it’s connections to the Greek and the river Evrus or Maritsa (Merida in Spanish). Hence the legend begins with Herodotus citing Thracians and horse races to provide a Thracian horse line.. And so they were on their own until 49 AD as they were Rome’s or Romanized or sklavinoi. In the beginning, it may (or not) have been possible to distinguish Getae and Thracians but they both were considered Greco. The Georgians were not… and after the second century both had suffered the process of slavicisation. My speculation goes on with the assertion that the taefali Calvary were Slavs or mixed to no recognition; perhaps a word in reference to a social condition. The Umayyad Caliphate provided clues as one of the earlier leaders of Almeria (Spain) was called Zohair Alameri The Slav. (Jose Antonio Conde) around 960 AD. The word used by the Muslims was Saqalib of which Taifa is a derivative. He also (Jose) introduced the word Xetayfa of which Geta is a derivative.