Greeks always fought outnumbered?

[Macedon]

If these men are packed and in panic I will certainly be catching a lot... Plus, my peltasts are lighter than their enemies, even if my supporting cavalry does not also for some reason pursue, which is not attested as many details are not in the text. Isn't it more probable that they did pursue as Cyrus was tempted to do? In all, a pursue is a pursue and for some reasons, even without much cavalry, the pursuers slaughtered a good amount of the enemy while any single enemy would move more quickly in the open against any single pursuer who still was fully armed and kept sure to keep a certain (even) loose cohesion. The reason is that crowds of people are not as fast as their single opponents. And keep in mind that the troops posted against the Greeks were no light infantry, they were infantry of the line.

Without saying that Artaxerxes was not there with more than 1,000, 10,000 or 100,000 men, arguments such as that are rarely helpful. You cannot possibly dismiss given numbers because in your opinion it is easy to mix up 30,000 with 300,000 or 900,000 men. Xenophon might be willing to exaggerate for his own reasons, but claiming that we dismiss his numbers not because of some scientific/rational argumentation but because he might be mistaken is not the way. the same applies to how prone sources are to exaggeration "especially when they were defeated", which of course seems to be your own opinion, again totally unsupported by any factual evidence.