01-03-2014, 03:11 PM
During the Republican period, would the second son of a Roman of the Equestrian Order also be of the equestrian order, if the father was still alive and paterfamilia? Or was the father expected to provide land for his son(s) once they reached adulthood so they can form their own families? At what point was someone reported as independent from their family during a census? Same goes for voting centuries and tribes.
Thanks in advance!
Thanks in advance!